This Exam FM sample reference tests Cash-Flow and Risk Matching. Only set I matches the liability's present value and duration while placing assets on both sides of year 3; set II misses duration and set III misses present value, so choice A.
These notes identify the calculation error associated with each wrong letter when that error is reproducible.
BSet II matches present value but its duration is about 2.538 rather than 3.
CSet III has present value about 4,617.64, exceeding the liability value.
DSets II and III each fail at least one necessary full-immunization condition.
EChoice A already identifies the only set satisfying all three conditions.
Original practice · fully worked
Original variant: zero-coupon allocation around a liability date
A liability of 6,000 is due in year 3 and is valued at 5% effective. A fund uses one-year and five-year zero-coupon securities to match present value and Macaulay duration. How much current value is placed in the one-year zero?
A 2,091.51
B 2,341.51
C 2,591.51
D 2,841.51
E 3,091.51
Variant answer in brief
A year-3 target lies midway between maturities 1 and 5, so half the liability present value, 2,591.51, goes into each zero; choice C.
Setup
Setup
Discount the liability to obtain the total current asset value required.
PL=6000(1.05)−3=5183.0256
Model
Model
Match both value and the first time moment using the two zero maturities.
x+y=PL,x+5y=3PL
Compute
Compute
Because year three is the midpoint of years one and five, the current values split equally.
x=y=PL/2=2591.5128
Answer
Answer
The one-year zero receives 2,591.51, corresponding to choice C.
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