Independent solution

How to solve this Cash-Flow and Risk Matching question

Setup

Setup

Let H and I be redemption amounts of the zero-coupon positions and J the par amount of the coupon bond.

H+0.12J=11000,I+1.12J=12100H+0.12J=11000,\qquad I+1.12J=12100

Model

Model

Exact matching supplies one constraint at each liability date; substituting those constraints into purchase cost leaves a linear function of J.

C=H1.10+I1.112+JC=\frac{H}{1.10}+\frac{I}{1.11^2}+J

Compute

Compute

Because the coefficient of J is negative, cost is minimized at the greatest feasible coupon-bond holding, where its final cash flow exactly covers year two.

C=198200.0181J,Jmax=121001.12=10803.57C=19820-0.0181J,\qquad J_{\max}=\frac{12100}{1.12}=10803.57

Answer

Answer

The corresponding one-year investment is about 8,821 and the coupon-bond amount is about 10,804, matching choice E.

H/1.10=8821.43,J=10803.57(E)\boxed{H/1.10=8821.43,\quad J=10803.57\quad\text{(E)}}